Do Push-Ups the Right Way and Improve Your Level of Physical Fitness

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Push-ups are one of the most basic and important exercises that you can do. However, too many people either can’t or don’t want to do push-ups, or do them the right way. There’s no need to be afraid of the push-up! The push-up is your friend and can help you to get into great shape. Here’s another fitness tip that can help you get one step closer to reaching your potential…

The push-up, along with its complimentary body weight movement the pull-up, is the bane of most people’s fitness existence. From the time these exercises were introduced to us back in grade school, many of us have struggled to perform them, and way too many people – adults and kids alike – can’t or don’t do them.

A little while ago I provided you with some pull-up fitness tips, and now I’m going to favor you with a little of my push-up wisdom. I’ll keep saying this until I’m blue in the face, but everyone should be able to perform proper push-ups and pull-ups.

To perform push-ups properly you have to be in the proper starting position. Start from a prone position – belly to the floor – with hands just outside shoulders with the fingers facing forward and arms fully extended. The feet can be together or as much as a foot apart. The hips should not sag towards the ground at any point during the exercise, and should be held in a position ever so slightly lower than the shoulders. Weight is forward on the hands so that the arms form a straight line from the wrists to the shoulders; the shoulders should not be behind the wrists.

From this starting position, bend the elbows and lower the body until upper arms are parallel to the ground – the chest does not have to touch the ground – then push up to return to the starting position. Remember to hold the middle firm so that the hips don’t rise and fall separately from the rest of the body. Stay as rigid as a board throughout the movement.

Inhale on the way down and exhale on the way up.

This is the only way to do a push-up.

For those of you who cannot do a push-up, here are some techniques to help get you there. And don’t bother with “modified” or “girl’s” push-ups that are done with knees on the floor. This exercise is a waste of time and, despite conventional wisdom, does NOT prepare the body to perform “real” push-ups.

The first step to prepare the body to do push-ups is to work on maintaining the proper start position. What seems like an easy enough thing to do is actually be difficult for many people. So the first drill for those who can’t do a push-up is to get into the starting position and hold it for 30 seconds, breathing steadily the entire time.

Maintaining this push-up posture for 30 seconds at a time is the best way for a beginner to strengthen the body and prepare for doing real push-ups. The “modified” push does nothing to develop the core strength and balance that’s required to do proper push-ups. If you haven’t tried this “static hold” exercise, you’ll be amazed at how difficult it can be, especially when doing 3 or 4 sets of 30 second holds, and how much more difficult it is to hold this position than it is to do modified, bastardized push-ups.

Progress from this “top position” static hold to a “bottom position” static hold, and the body is in a position where the chest is a few inches off of the floor. This is a more difficult drill, so shoot for sets of 10-15 seconds in duration.

Once the two variations of “static hold” push-ups have been mastered, progress to “negative” push-ups. Negative push-ups will help to build the strength needed to do real, full push-ups. To do a negative push-up get into the starting position and slowly lower your body until your chest touches the floor, maintaining strict control during the movement. When doing “negatives” there’s no concern for the push phase of the exercise, so once your chest touches the floor just get back to the staring position by going to your knees and resetting.

The term “negative” is used to describe what is technically known as the eccentric contraction. During the down phase of the push-up the primary movers – the chest and the triceps muscles – are lengthening, which describes what occurs during an eccentric contraction. There is the belief that strength is built during the eccentric, or negative phase of an exercise. The most common adaptation of negatives is on the bench press, where the bar is slowly lowered to the chest while a spotter lifts the bar back to the starting position.

Without getting any more technical, doing negatives versions of different kinds of exercises takes advantage of the muscles’ ability to lower a weight that is much heavier than the maximum weight that can be lifted. If you’ve ever gotten stuck at the bottom position doing squats or the bench press, you’ve seen this principle in action; lowering 300 pounds under control is one thing, but pressing it is another story.

So don’t ignore push-ups, as this body-weight exercise can help to get into, and stay, in great shape.

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ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 10

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1. Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)

ans:
connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds

2. Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?
ans:
console interface

3. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
ans:
greater distances per cable run
limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
greater bandwidth potential

4. A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?
ans:
UTP

5. What does the term “attenuation” mean in data communication?
ans:
loss of signal strength as distance increases

6. How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
ans:
2046

7. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
ans:
255.255.255.0

8. A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
ans:
255.255.255.224

9. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
ans:
rollover

10. Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?
ans:
router

11. Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?
ans:
192.168.3.54

12. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?
ans:
host B would be successful, host A would fail

13. Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco’s V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)
ans:
DB 60
Winchester 15 pin
smart serial

14. Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?
ans:
3

15. What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)
ans:
direct configuration of the device
the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

16. Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)
ans:
They segment broadcast domains.
They interconnect different network technologies.
Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?
ans:
hub

18. Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
ans:
1

19. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)
ans:
Five broadcast domains are present.
Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
Five networks are shown.

20. To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?
ans:
rollover cable

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
ans:
Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.

22. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?
ans:
255.255.255.224

23. Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?
ans:
switch

CCNA 3: Module 5

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1. Which two statements are true about the default operation of STP in a Layer 2 switched environment that has redundant connections between switches? (Choose two.)
The root switch is the switch with the highest speed ports.
Decisions on which port to block when two ports have equal cost depend on the port priority and identity.
All trunking ports are designated and not blocked.
Root switches have all ports set as root ports.
Non-root switches each have only one root port.

2. Which two statements describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)
They are sent out by the root bridge only after the inferior BPDUs are sent.
They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address.
Only the root bridge will send out a BID.
They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge.
The switch with the fastest processor will have the lowest BID.

3. In which two ways is the information that is contained in BPDUs used by switches? (Choose two.)
to negotiate a trunk between switches
to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
to identify the shortest path to the root bridge
to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree

4. Which two actions does an RSTP edge port take if it receives a BPDU? (Choose two.)
immediately loses its edge status
inhibits the generation of a TCN
goes immediately to a learning state
disables itself
becomes a normal spanning-tree port

5. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network have empty MAC tables. STP has been disabled on the switches in the network. How will a broadcast frame that is sent by host PC1 be handled on the network?
Switch SW1 will block the broadcast and drop the frame.
Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. This will generate an endless loop in the network.
Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. All hosts in the network will replay with a unicast frame sent to host PC1.
Switch SW1 will forward the traffic out all switch ports except the originating port as a unicast frame. All hosts in the network will replay with a unicast frame sent to switch SW1.

6. Which two items are true regarding the spanning-tree portfast command? (Choose two.)
PortFast is Cisco proprietary.
PortFast can negatively effect DHCP services.
PortFast is used to more quickly prevent and eliminate bridging loops.
Enabling PortFast on trunks that connect to other switches improves convergence.
If an access port is configured with PortFast, it immediately transitions from a blocking to a forwarding state.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Server sends an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If STP is not enabled, what will be the result of this ARP request?

Router_1 will drop the broadcast and reply with the MAC address of the next hop router.
Switch_A will reply with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.
Switch_A and Switch_B will continuously flood the message onto the network.
The message will cycle around the network until its TTL is exceeded.

8. What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
election of the root bridge
blocking of the non-designated ports
selection of the designated trunk port
determination of the designated port for each segment

9. How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?
Configure all the interfaces on the switch as the static root ports.
Change the BPDU to a lower value than that of the other switches in the network.
Assign a lower IP address to the switch than that of the other switches in the network.
Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.

10. Refer to the exhibit. The spanning-tree port priority of each interface is at the default setting. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. What is the effect of the command?
Spanning tree blocks Gi0/1 on S3.
Gi0/2 on S3 transitions to a root port.
Port priority makes Gi0/2 on S1 a root port.
S4 is already the root bridge, so there are no port changes.

11. What two features of the Spanning-Tree Protocol contribute to the time it takes for a switched network to converge after a topology change occurs? (Choose two.)
the max-age timer
the spanning-tree hold down timer
the forward delay
the spanning-tree path cost
the blocking delay

12. In which STP state does a port record MAC addresses but not forward user data?
blocking
Learning
disabling
listening
forwarding

13. Which three statements are accurate regarding RSTP and STP? (Choose three.)

RSTP uses a faster algorithm to determine root ports.
RSTP introduced the extended system ID to allow for more than 4096 VLANs.
Both RSTP and STP use the portfast command to allow ports to immediately transition to forwarding state.
Like STP PortFast, an RSTP edge port that receives a BPDU loses its edge port status immediately and becomes a normal spanning-tree port.
Configuration commands to establish primary and secondary root bridges are identical for STP and RSTP.
Because of the format of the BPDU packet, RSTP is backward compatible with STP.


14. What two elements will exist in a converged network with one spanning tree? (Choose two.)
one root bridge per network
all non-designated ports forwarding
one root port per non-root bridge
multiple designated ports per segment
one designated port per network

15. Which statement or set of paired statements correctly compares STP with RSTP?
STP and RSTP use the same BPDU format.
STP specifies backup ports. RSTP has only root ports, alternate ports, and designated ports.
STP port states are independent of port roles. RSTP ties together the port state and port role.
STP waits for the network to converge before placing ports into forwarding state. RSTP places alternate ports into forwarding state immediately.

16. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output shown?
Two hosts communicating between ports Fa0/2 and Fa0/4 have a cost of 38.
The priority was statically configured to identify the root.
STP is disabled on this switch.
The timers have been altered to reduce convergence time.

17. Which two criteria does a switch use to select the root bridge? (Choose two.)
bridge priority
switching speed
number of ports
base MAC address
switch location
memory size

18. What three link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)
Shared
end-to-end
edge-type
boundary-type
point-to-many
point-to-point

19. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) role is assigned to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
alternate
backup
Designated
root

20. When PVST+ was developed, the Bridge ID was modified to include which information?
bridge priority
MAC address
protocol
VLAN ID